So I figured when making function pointers, you do not need the operator &
to get the address of the initial function:
#include <stdio.h>
double foo (double x){
return x*x;
}
int main () {
double (*fun1)(double) = &foo;
double (*fun2)(double) = foo;
printf("%f\n",fun1(10));
printf("%f\n",fun2(10));
printf("fun1 = %p \t &foo = %p\n",fun1, &foo);
printf("fun2 = %p \t foo = %p\n",fun2, foo);
int a[10];
printf(" a = %p \n &a = %p \n",a,&a);
return 0;
}
output:
>./a.out
100.000000
100.000000
fun1 = 0x4004f4 &foo = 0x4004f4
fun2 = 0x4004f4 foo = 0x4004f4
a = 0x7fff26804470
&a = 0x7fff26804470
Then I realized this is also true for arrays, meaning that if you have int a[10]
both a
and &a
point to the same location. Why is that with arrays and functions? Is the address saved in a memory location that has the same address as the value(address) being saved in it?
Given
int a[10]
, botha
and&a
yield the same address, yes, but their types are different.a
is of typeint[10]
. When it is implicitly converted to a pointer type, the pointer is of typeint*
and points to the initial element of the array.&a
is of typeint (*)[10]
(that is, a pointer to an array of ten integers). Because there can be no padding in an array, they both yield pointers with the same value, but the pointers have different types.Functions are similar to arrays, but not entirely the same. Your function
foo
is of typedouble(double)
. Wheneverfoo
is used in an expression and is not the operand of the unary&
operator, it is implicitly converted to a pointer to itself, which is of typedouble(*)(double)
.So, for all practical purposes, the name of a function and a pointer to the same function are interchangeable. There are some subtleties, all of which I discuss in an answer to "Why do all these crazy function pointer definitions all work? What is really going on?" (That question was asked about C++, but the rules for nonmember functions in C++ are the same as for functions in C.)
Here your are calling
foo
by passing Function Pointer withpass by value
andHere you are calling
&foo
by passing function Pointer withpass by reference
in both case your are calling the
printf
with function pointer only.Remember
foo
itself isfunction pointer value
and `not a variable.Same happens with array.
int arr[10]
translates into get continuous block of 10 Integers and address of first element is stored into arr. so arr is also a pointer.Basically, since the function name is "known" to be a function, the & is not strictly necessary. This behavior is the same for arrays. Recall that a function itself is not a variable, so it behaves a little differently than you might expect sometimes. If you have the 2nd edition of K&R, you can check out section 5.11 on pointers to functions, or the reference manual at the end,
As far as I know, this is the same for C99.
fun
and&fun
are exactly the same (except that sizeof(f) is illegal).a
and&a
are the same up to pointer arithmetic:a + 10 == &a + 1
, because10*sizeof(*a) == sizeof(a)
(wheresizeof(*a) == sizeof(int)
).No, there's no extra storage dedicated to pointing to the function/array.
With most variables
variable_name
has a meaning other than getting the address of that variable, so you need to use&variable
to get the address.With a function or array,
function_name
(by itself, not followed by parentheses) doesn't have any other meaning, so there was no problem with interpreting it as taking the address of the function.Likewise in reverse: a normal pointer needs to be dereferenced explicitly, but a pointer to a function doesn't (again, because there's no other reasonable interpretation), so given a pointer to a function like:
The following are equivalent to each other -- both call whatever function
func
points at: