When 1em is applied to an element, it takes the default value of the browser (usually, 16px) or the font-size value of its parent, right?. But I noticed that if I use something like margin-top: 1em
in a h1
element (without using a reset stylesheet, and therefore, h1 is set to font-size: 32px
), then 1em is equal to 32px
, even if its parent element is set to font-size: 16px
.
However, using something like font-size: 100%; solves the discrepancy.
What am I missing?
No, it takes its own
font-size
, computed based on its parent (or the default browser-supplied value). Since the browser-suppliedfont-size
ofh1
is 32 pixels, the resultant margin is 32 pixels.By setting
font-size: 100%;
orfont-size: 1em;
on an element, you're telling it to use 100% of the font size of its parent, so setting1em
as a length on anything else will follow that 100%.1em
is equal to the font-size of the element in question. So when using it with margins, it will be equivalent to the font-size of the element you're applying the margin too.